A 42-year-old man with no history of use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) presents with recurrent gastritis. Infection with Helicobacter pylori is suspected. Which of the following statements is true?
A.Morphologically，the bacteria is a gram-positive，tennis-racket-shaped organism
B.Diagnosis can be made by serologic testing of urea breath tests
C.Diagnosis is most routinely achieved via culturing endoscopic scrapings
D.The most effective way to treat and prevent recurrence of this patient’s gastri-
E.tis is through the use of single drug therapy aimed at eradicating H. pylori E. The organism is easily eradicated
试卷相关题目
- 1The most reasonable treatment of acute perforated gastric ulcer is：
A.conservative treatment including gastrointestinal depression etc，
B.simple repair of perforation，
C.wedge resection of gastric ulcer，
D.major gastric resection，
E.repair of perforation，and vasotomy.
开始考试点击查看答案 - 2The three first-line examinations of improving the early diagnosis of gastric cancer are：
A.esophagogastroscopy，cytology of gastric juice，and barium meal X-ray
B.esophagogastroscopy，acid measure of gastric juice，and barium meal X-ray
C.esophagogastroscopy，occult blood test of feces，and barium meal X-ray
D.cytology of gastric juice，occult blood test of feces，and esophagogastroscopy
E.cytology of gastric juice，tetracycline fluorescence test，and barium meal X-ray
开始考试点击查看答案 - 3Duodenal ulcer perforation often happens in the
A.Duodenal bulb
B.Front wal lof duodenal bulb
C.Back wall of duodenal bulb
D.Back of duodenal bulb
E.Juxtapyloric duodenum
开始考试点击查看答案 - 4Which of the following is a correct indication for operation on duodenal ulcer?
A.Immediate surgery should be made in all suspected acute perforation cases.
B.Pyloric obstruction must be surgically managed.
C.Surgical management is needed in case two courses of medical treatment fails.
D.C.Surgical management is needed in case two courses of medical treatment fails.D.The patient has a long history，frequent episodes，serious symptoms，ineffective medical management， and inability of normal work and living.
E.None of the above.
开始考试点击查看答案 - 5A 25-year old male，who had undergone subtotal gastrectomy because of acute duodenum ulcer perforation and had had uneventful recovery after thesurgery，had vSudden onset of repeated vomiting on his 8th postoperative day during meal. Which of the following approach is inappropriate?
A.gastrointestinal decompression
B.TPN
C.Neostigmine injection
D.Fasting
E.immediate exploratorylaparotomy
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